Quote Originally Posted by karl k
Now some will argue that even w/o the change of definition, the law is still discriminatory since it is selective to opposite sex partners only and therefore it is justified to change the defination of marriage. I believe it is this interpretation of the law that some fear will be carried out by the judges instead of by popular vote at the state level.
Well, the 14th Amendment was passed legally and in accordance with the Constitution. The Supreme Court is supposed to apply it.

Now, since marriage laws have changed quite drastically in the past. Foir example, in many states, people of different races weren't supposed to marry but the Supreme Court shot down the laws--funny how nobody much complains this was undemocratic. What's the difference?